It costs a dollar no matter who's buying it...
But not everyone values it for a dollar? People who don't buy burgers value them for less than a dollar, and people who buy them value them for more, so people who eat at McDonald's value it more than millionaires. I gave the standard economic justification for using dollars to quantitatively estimate desire.
There is a moral question here: should I take money from rich people to give it to poor people? Reasonable people I know tend to say yes, at least in the world as it is today, and I agree. But this is a moral question, not a factual question, as far as I can tell.
There is a moral question here: should I take money from rich people to give it to poor people? Reasonable people I know tend to say yes, at least in the world as it is today, and I agree.
My own answer is "Yes, with caveats, and acknowledging the real-world context we live in makes a difference to this question."
In a purely abstract sense I find it, well, problematic at best, but I also take note of the fact that most functional, somewhat wealthy (in their own ecological and economic context if not by present-day Western standards) societies ...
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.