"A is an interpretation of B" means either A&B or ~A&~B, but excludes ~A&B
Let the statements be (X) [...] (Y)
Here's your error. There's a (Z).
(Z) "A poor person will suffer more for the lack of one dollar than a rich person will suffer for the lack of one dollar."
Here's what I originally said, broken into symbolic logic for you:
At no time did I say, however, that Y ⊃ Z. That assertion would be a direct contradiction of my last line in the comment:
Both of these rephrasings are potential "effectively synonymous" statements to the original question, but I hope that their answers are quite obviously inverted from each other.
A article in the Atlantic, linked to by someone on the unofficial LW IRC channel caught my eye. Nothing all that new for LessWrong readers, but still it is good to see any mention of such biases in mainstream media.
I break here to comment that I don't see why we would expect this to be so given the reality of academia.