ParagonProtege comments on [SEQ RERUN] Guardians of Ayn Rand - Less Wrong

3 Post author: MinibearRex 27 November 2011 05:12AM

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Comment author: [deleted] 27 November 2011 05:30:12AM 0 points [-]

Bayesian probability theory is the quantitative logic of which Aristotle's qualitative logic is a special case

Are there any great explanations that show why this is true? Something that shows how to derive Aristotelian logic from the axioms of Bayesian probability theory?

Comment author: MinibearRex 28 November 2011 02:42:26AM 3 points [-]

A somewhat more detailed derivation was made in this post by komponisto. He derived the analogues of modus ponens and modus tollens from Bayes' theorem. If you want even more detail, the first couple of chapters of Probability Theory: The Logic of Science discuss it.

Comment author: [deleted] 27 November 2011 07:19:42AM 3 points [-]

Aristotlean logic is obtained by assuming every probability to be either one or zero.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 29 November 2011 05:23:34AM 1 point [-]

Interestingly enough most of his fallacies are actually valid Bayesian inferences that aren't capable of producing outputs of 1 or 0 even if all of their inputs are 1 or 0.

Comment author: James_Blair 28 November 2011 02:01:19AM 0 points [-]

This is particularly interesting in light of how 1 and 0 "work" within a bayesian context.

Comment author: fubarobfusco 27 November 2011 07:23:33AM 2 points [-]

Yes. Just try applying the sum and product rules to the possible combinations of probabilities 0 and 1. The results should look familiar.