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paper-machine comments on [SEQ RERUN] Guardians of Ayn Rand - Less Wrong
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Are there any great explanations that show why this is true? Something that shows how to derive Aristotelian logic from the axioms of Bayesian probability theory?
Aristotlean logic is obtained by assuming every probability to be either one or zero.
Interestingly enough most of his fallacies are actually valid Bayesian inferences that aren't capable of producing outputs of 1 or 0 even if all of their inputs are 1 or 0.
This is particularly interesting in light of how 1 and 0 "work" within a bayesian context.