EvelynM comments on Funnel plots: the study that didn't bark, or, visualizing regression to the null - Less Wrong

47 Post author: gwern 04 December 2011 11:05AM

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Comment author: EvelynM 30 November 2011 06:27:58PM 3 points [-]

Do I get your main point correctly that: If all studies were published the line in the upper graph would meander around the 1 line, but because all points fall either above OR below the 1 line, we can assume only studies that showed positive results were published?

Is it possible to put a bounds on the number of studies|same size that were NOT published, if we assume an equal likelihood of a point being on either side of the 1 line?

Comment author: gwern 30 November 2011 07:12:22PM 0 points [-]

Yes.

I'm sure you could, since it's just estimating the other half of the distribution. But you're really going to need that assumption, which is not necessarily safe (eg. imagine flipping a fair coin - by a magician who unconsciously wants it to come up heads. It'd fail a funnel graph but not because of publication bias. And there are many ways to hire magician flippers).

Comment author: Dan_Moore 13 December 2011 03:18:49PM 2 points [-]

If the statistical significance of the studies are valid, then it's quite unlikely that the lines would cross the x-axis. What Ionnidis is demonstrating is an overstatement of effect size in the initial studies.

Also, Yvain's point that a cumulative odds ratio graph is different from a generic funnel plot.