In essence, if a counterargument comes along demonstrating that T is false, then it necessarily would involve demonstrating that invalid reasoning was somewhere committed in someone's having arrived at the (fallacious) truth of T.
I think I see your point, but if you allow for the possibility that the original deductive reasoning is wrong, i.e. deny logical omniscience, don't you need some way to quantify that possibility, and in the end that would mean treating the deductive reasoning itself as bayesian evidence for the truth of T?
Unless you assume that you can't make a mistake at the deductive reasoning, T being a theorem of the promises is a theory to be proven with the Bayesian framework, with Bayesian evidence, not anything special.
And if you do assume that you can't make a mistake at the deductive reasoning, I think theres no sense in paying attention to any contrary evidence.
...if you allow for the possibility that the original deductive reasoning is wrong...
I want to be very clear here: a valid deductive reasoning can never be wrong (i.e., invalid), only those who exercise in such reasoning are liable to error. This does not pertain to logical omniscience per se, because we are not here concerned with the logical coherence of the total collection of beliefs a given person (like the one in the example) might possess; we are only concerned with T. And humans, in any case, do not always engage in deduction properly due to man...
I present here two puzzles of rationality you LessWrongers may think is worth to deal with. Maybe the first one looks more amenable to a simple solution, while the second one has called attention of a number of contemporary epistemologists (Cargile, Feldman, Harman), and does not look that simple when it comes to a solution. So, let's go to the puzzles!
Puzzle 1
At t1 I justifiably believe theorem T is true, on the basis of a complex argument I just validly reasoned from the also justified premises P1, P2 and P3.
So, in t1 I reason from premises:
(R1) P1, P2 ,P3
To the known conclusion:
(T) T is true
At t2, Ms. Math, a well known authority on the subject matter of which my reasoning and my theorem are just a part, tells me I’m wrong. She tells me the theorem is just false, and convince me of that on the basis of a valid reasoning with at least one false premise, the falsity of that premise being unknown to us.
So, in t2 I reason from premises (Reliable Math and Testimony of Math):
(RM) Ms. Math is a reliable mathematician, and an authority on the subject matter surrounding (T),
(TM) Ms. Math tells me T is false, and show to me how is that so, on the basis of a valid reasoning from F, P1, P2 and P3,
(R2) F, P1, P2 and P3
To the justified conclusion:
(~T) T is not true
It could be said by some epistemologists that (~T) defeat my previous belief (T). Is it rational for me to do this way? Am I taking the correct direction of defeat? Wouldn’t it also be rational if (~T) were defeated by (T)? Why ~(T) defeats (T), and not vice-versa? It is just because ~(T)’s justification obtained in a later time?
Puzzle 2
At t1 I know theorem T is true, on the basis of a complex argument I just validly reasoned, with known premises P1, P2 and P3. So, in t1 I reason from known premises:
(R1) P1, P2 ,P3
To the known conclusion:
(T) T is true
Besides, I also reason from known premises:
(ME) If there is any evidence against something that is true, then it is misleading evidence (evidence for something that is false)
(T) T is true
To the conclusion (anti-misleading evidence):
(AME) If there is any evidence against (T), then it is misleading evidence
At t2 the same Ms. Math tells me the same thing. So in t2 I reason from premises (Reliable Math and Testimony of Math):
(RM) Ms. Math is a reliable mathematician, and an authority on the subject matter surrounding (T),
(TM) Ms. Math tells me T is false, and show to me how is that so, on the basis of a valid reasoning from F, P1, P2 and P3,
But then I reason from::
(F*) F, RM and TM are evidence against (T), and
(AME) If there is any evidence against (T), then it is misleading evidence
To the conclusion:
(MF) F, RM and TM is misleading evidence
And then I continue to know T and I lose no knowledge, because I know/justifiably believe that the counter-evidence I just met is misleading. Is it rational for me to act this way?
I know (T) and I know (AME) in t1 on the basis of valid reasoning. Then, I am exposed to misleading evidences (Reliable Math), (Testimony of Math) and (F). The evidentialist scheme (and maybe still other schemes) support the thesis that (RM), (TM) and (F) DEFEATS my justification for (T) instead. So that whatever I inferred from (T) is no longer known. However, given my previous knowledge of (T) and (AME), I could know that (MF): F is misleading evidence. It can still be said that (RM), (TM) and (F) DEFEAT my justification for (T), given that (MF) DEFEAT my justification for (RM), (TM) and (F)?