argumzio comments on How Many Worlds? - Less Wrong

2 Post author: smk 14 December 2011 02:51PM

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Comment author: argumzio 14 December 2011 05:49:37PM *  -2 points [-]

Uncountably many. Consider that on the scale of the Omniverse (which contains only this one particular universe among uncountably many) the probability for any event is 1. It is also so, because it is absurd to suppose there is a universe in which something, if there be anything, does not exist. Furthermore, even if the probability for an event in our universe were 0 that would in no way serve as an impediment to its occurring in the long run.

Comment author: magfrump 15 December 2011 10:42:58AM *  3 points [-]

I read your post in the other thread by Mitch_Porter, asking about why your post here got downvoted. As someone who would also have responded with the answer "uncountably many" and was in fact surprised to find that that wasn't quickly established as the obvious correct answer, I thought I might come take a look.

I would guess that the (mild) downvoting on this post comes from the fact that after your first sentence, you stop talking about specific instances of decoherence and start talking about omniverses and probabilities of 1 and 0. your language is more technical than it needs to be and grammatically odd.

It is also so

it is absurd to suppose

if there be anything

contains only this one...among uncountably many

all of these fragments make me cringe and have to parse what you're saying.

I hope this helps!