PhilGoetz comments on Average utilitarianism must be correct? - Less Wrong
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Here we disagree. f is the utility function for a world state. If it were an arbitrary function, we'd have no reason to think that the axioms should hold for it. Positing the axioms is based on our commonsense notion of what utility is like.
I'm not assuming that there are a bunch of individual w(i) functions. Think instead of a situation where one person is calculating only their private utility. f is simply their utility function. You may be thinking that I have some definition of "utilitarianism" that places restrictions on f. "Average utilitarianism" does, but I don't think "utilitarianism" does; and if it did, then I wouldn't apply it here. The phrase "average utilitarianism" has not yet come into play in my argument by this point. All I ask at this point in the argument, is what the theorem asks - that there be a utility function for the outcome.
I thikn you're thinking that I'm saying that the theorem says that f has to be a sum or average of the w(i), and therefore we have to be average utilitarians. That's not what I'm saying at all. I tried to explain that already before. Read steven0461's comment above, and my response to it.
The claim I am taking exception to is the claim that the vNM axioms provide support to (average) utilitarianism, or suggest that we need not be concerned with inequality. This is what I took your bullet points 6 and 8 (in the main post) to be suggesting (not to mention the title of the post!)
If you are not claiming either of these things, then I apologize for misunderstanding you. If you are claiming either of these things, then my criticisms stand.
As far as I can tell, most of your first two paragraphs are inaccurate descriptions of the theory. In particular, f is not just an individual's private utility function. To the extent that the vNM argument generalizes in the way you want it to, f can be any monotonic transform of a private utility function, which means, amongst other things, that we are allowed to care about inequality, and (average) utilitarianism is not implied.
But I've repeated myself enough. I doubt this conversation is productive any more, if it ever was, so I'm going to forego adding any more noise from now on.
I read both of them when they were originally posted, and have looked over them again at your exhortation, but have sadly not discovered whatever enlightenment you want me to find there.
As steven0461 said,
Not "proven", really, but he's got the idea.
I am pretty confident that you're mistaken. f is a utility function. Furthermore, it doesn't matter that the vNM argument can apply to things that satisfy the axioms but aren't utility functions, as long as it applies to the utility functions that we maximize when we are maximizing expected utility.
Either my first two bullet points are correct, or most of the highest-page-ranked explanations of the theory on the Web are wrong. So perhaps you could be specific about how they are wrong.
I understand what steven0461 said. I get the idea too, I just think it's wrong. I've tried to explain why it's wrong numerous times, but I've clearly failed, and don't see myself making much further progress.
In lieu of further failed attempts to explain myself, I'm lodging a gratuitous appeal to Nobel Laureate authority, leaving some further references, and bowing out.
The following quote from Amartya Sen (1979) pretty much sums up my position (in the context of a similar debate between him and Harsanyi about the meaning of Harsanyi's supposed axiomatic proof of utilitarianism).
Further refs, if anyone's interested:
Parts of the Hintikka and Butts volume are available in Google Books.
(I'll put these in the Harsanyi thread above as well.)