Nymogenous comments on [LINK] Antidepressants: Bad Drugs... Or Bad Patients? - Less Wrong

14 Post author: wallowinmaya 04 January 2012 09:31PM

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Comment author: shminux 04 January 2012 11:12:34PM 2 points [-]

Could similar mechanisms hold true for other drugs?

I can see that being an issue for subjective side-effect reporting (e.g. headache, nausea), but not for objectively measurable data, such as blood cholesterol levels, survival rates, etc. There you may have the "true" placebo effect, but probably not the described selection effects.

Comment author: Nymogenous 05 January 2012 01:05:37AM *  2 points [-]

This is especially true for antidepressants because some are only effective on more severe cases (eg Zoloft); self-selection will yield a body of faux-depressed and mildly depressed people on whom the drug has no result.

EDIT: Apparently I was thinking of a different drug.

Comment author: calamondin 06 January 2012 04:14:54AM 0 points [-]

Zoloft has actually been found to be one of the better drugs for cases of mild chronic depression ("dysthymia").