I seem to recall reading about a way to divide the interval [0, 1] in subsets, translating some of them, and getting [0, 2] (involving the Vitali set or something like that), but maybe my memory fails me.
This is possible if you use infinitely many subsets. With an uncountably infinite number of pieces it is true by definition, with a countably infinite number of pieces it can be proven using the Vitali set, and with a finite number of pieces it is not true.
Or am I missing something?
What Oscar_Cunningham said, but basically, no, you are not.
Or am I missing something?
What Oscar_Cunningham said, but basically, no, you are not.
I was expecting something harder given that you called it "a nice exercise", so I pretty much assumed that mine was not the right solution...
I want to share the following explanations that I came across recently and which I enjoyed very much. I can't tell and don't suspect that they come close to an understanding of the original concepts but that they are so easy to grasp that it is worth the time if you don't already studied the extended formal versions of those concepts. In other words, by reading the following explanations your grasp of the matter will be less wrong than before but not necessarily correct.
World's shortest explanation of Gödel's theorem
by Raymond Smullyan, '5000 BC and Other Philosophical Fantasies' via Mark Dominus (ask me for the PDF of the book)
Mark Dominus further writes,
The Banach-Tarski Paradox
by MarkCC