srdiamond comments on Is risk aversion really irrational ? - Less Wrong
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But (essentially to repeat a point) it would be a bias, since the adjustment is based on risk, whereas it should ('assuming everything else) be based on uncertainty (risk multiplied by the length of time the result is unknown). But even if the adjustment were based on the relevant factor, it would still be a bias because the adjustment should concern not only the time but on the chances that relevant decisions will be required in the interval.
A separate point—One topic that should be considered in evaluating the argument further is whether other decision problems introduce the same "strange loops."