I'm not sure that's how it was motivated historically. Note that Euclid's proof (Edit: not Euler) doesn't require measuring anything at all.
To use a different example, how would one go about measuring whether there are more real numbers than integers? The proof is pretty easier, but it doesn't require any empirical facts as far as I can tell.
To use a different example, how would one go about measuring whether there are more real numbers than integers? The proof is pretty easier, but it doesn't require any empirical facts as far as I can tell.
There are all kinds of quantitative ways in which there are more real numbers than integers. On the other hand a tiny minority of us regard Cantor's argument (that I think you're alluding to) as misleading and maybe false.
Here's the new thread for posting quotes, with the usual rules: