I charged conservation of expected evidence or overconfidence. I'm plenty willing to concede that overconfidence is more likely. My idea was that any claim which takes the form, "No evidence could convince me otherwise," is probably falling victim to at least one of the two.

If that's what you're saying, then the situation I gave you still doesn't count as either. The situation was where you believe that P(E|~H) = P(E|H) for all E and a given H. I showed how it doesn't violate CEE already. It also can't be described as "overconfidence". If anything, its' under confidence since the person who believes it is deliberately setting it up so as to shy away from any possibility of being proven wrong.

Of course, this position also might not be what Austrians believe, since they claim that the insights (the H's) from Austrian economics do constrain their expectations, but also that nothing can make them change their belief in them, which would then be a violate of CEE.

I'm asserting that the stability across large groups of people of Allais gamble preferences is evidence of a violation of rationality rather than a preference change. ... Milking" (but not "money pumping") is therefore an accurate diagnosis of what happens in the one-shot game.

And I've shown how that's wrong. It's not a preference change, and it's not irrational. Rather, it's a reasonable choice when you only get one shot at each choice. All the supposed "proofs" of irrationality or preference reversal require you to first assume multiple repititions of the game and the chance to trade one game for another, neither of which happen in the experiment. And again, they weren't milked; they got two free lottery tickets.

I do not understand your point about price rationing. Prices reflect subjective values. If the producer's motivation is "decrease price to the mandate," how do the new prices on inputs not reflect that value? The economy rations on goods forgone, yes, but the producer in question is the highest bidder for the use of those goods, so the new prices still reflect people's values.

No, they don't. For the case of a price cap that is a small amount below the market-clearing price, the noble producer must up his production to handle the additional buyers, which requires him to implicitly sell his labor (to himself) below market prices. (If this were not the case -- if his labor were really worth that much -- the market price would not have been at its current level, which was the assumption.) Then there is non-price rationing because there is someone who wants to buy his underpriced labor but cannot.