I was going to comment about how the individual chords were clearly different to my ear but the "stereotypical I-IV-V-I cadential sequences" were indistinguishable, precisely the reverse of the experience the Bell Labs post doc reportedly reported. Then I read the comments on the article and realized this is fairly common, so I deleted the comment. Then I decided to comment on it anyway. Now I have.
I had to listen to that second part several times before I could pick up the difference too. They sound equivalent unless I concentrate.
Here's the new thread for posting quotes, with the usual rules: