gwern comments on Knowledge value = knowledge quality × domain importance - Less Wrong

8 Post author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 08:40AM

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Comment author: gwern 16 April 2012 03:15:45PM *  6 points [-]

But knowledge does not come in two grades, "scientific" and "useless". Anecdotes do count as Bayesian evidence, they are just weak Bayesian evidence. And well designed scientific studies constitute stronger Bayesian evidence then poorly designed studies. There's a continuum for knowledge quality.

Methodologically, each self-experiment is typically much more poorly run than the kinds of trials we try to discuss here (RCTs), so each self-experiment represents less than n=1 of data. The RCTs usually have at least a few dozen and ideally hundreds or thousands of subjects, either singly or pooled for meta-analysis. So a single such meta-analysis represents thousands of subjects times the fractional quality of a self-experiment, leading to the conclusion that one self-experiment is worth somewhere less than one-hundredths to one-thousandths of any comparable RCT.

The human mind doesn't do 64-bit floating weights. It doesn't even do shorts.

Comment author: [deleted] 16 April 2012 03:24:45PM 1 point [-]

It doesn't even do shorts.

Of course the human mind does shorts! They're comfy and easy to wear!

Comment author: gwern 16 April 2012 03:31:03PM 2 points [-]

You're actually why we don't do shorts. (Please, never again wear them in public.)

Comment author: wedrifid 16 April 2012 03:29:11PM 0 points [-]

It doesn't even do shorts.

Mine does, it even adds in legs.

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 04:03:25PM *  1 point [-]

The quality of a belief is not linear in the number of participants in the study supporting it.

You're ignoring heavily diminishing returns from additional data points. In other words, to persuade me that studies with many participants really are a lot better, you'd have to do some math and show me that if I randomly sampled just a few study participants and inferred based on their results only, my inferences would frequently be wrong.

This seems pretty clearly not the case (see analysis in my reply to this comment).

Additionally, in domains like negotiation, I'd guess that decent-quality knowledge of many facts is more valuable than high-quality knowledge of just a few. Studies are a good way to get high-quality knowledge regarding a few facts, but not decent-quality knowledge regarding many. (Per unit effort.)

Testing something a bunch of times doesn't make it the thing you most need tested. (And some things may be hard to test cleanly.)

Comment author: satt 16 April 2012 10:17:40PM *  4 points [-]

You're ignoring heavily diminishing returns from additional data points.

Although the win (expressed as precision of an effect size estimate) from upping the sample size n probably only goes as about √n, I think that's enough for gwern's quantitative point to go through. An RCT with a sample size of e.g. 400 would still be 10 times better than 4 self-experiments by this metric. (And this is leaving aside gwern's point about methodological quality. RCTs punch above their weight because random assignment allows direct causal inference.)

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 11:27:17PM *  1 point [-]

Although the win (expressed as precision of an effect size estimate) from upping the sample size n probably only goes as about √n

Where is the math for this?

I agree that methodology is important, but humans can often be good at inferring causality even without randomized controlled trials.

Edit: more thoughts on why I don't think the Bienaymé formula is too relevant here; see also.

Comment author: steven0461 17 April 2012 12:00:10AM 3 points [-]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Variance#Sum_of_uncorrelated_variables_.28Bienaym.C3.A9_formula.29

(Of course, any systematic bias stays the same no matter how big you make the sample.)

Comment author: satt 17 April 2012 09:32:26PM 1 point [-]

Where is the math for this?

What steven0461 said. Square rooting both sides of the Bienaymé formula gives the standard deviation of the mean going as 1/√n. Taking precision as the reciprocal of that "standard error" then gives a √n dependence.

I agree that methodology is important, but humans can often be good at inferring causality even without randomized controlled trials.

This is true, but we're also often wrong, and for small-to-medium effects it's often tough to say when we're right and when we're wrong without a technique that severs all possible links between confounders and outcome.

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 05:41:49PM *  1 point [-]

I'm too lazy to do a better analysis now, but just to provide the barest of intuitions:

Let's say a study with trillions of participants has shown that using Strategy A works better than not using Strategy A 80% of the time. I'm about to decide whether or not to use Strategy A, and unfortunately I don't know about the study. I poll three of my friends who have all done rigorous self-experiments. (Or maybe I've done three rigorous self-experiments myself.) All it takes is a pocket calculator to show that I have a 90% chance of correctly guessing whether I should use Strategy A: .2^3 + 3 * (.8.2.2) = .104. And obviously if I poll myself, based on a single past rigorous self-experiment, I'll have an 80% chance of getting it right.

(A better analysis would probably use the normal approximation for the binomial distribution, so we could see results for all sorts of parameters, but that would be a pain to write out with my voice recognition system.)

I suspect that scientific evidence is most useful on questions that are hard to decide (e.g. if Strategy A works 51% of the time; incidentally this sort of knowledge is also the most useless), or in cases where your degree of belief matters beyond just choosing whether or not to use a strategy (seems kind of rare).

This last point about degree of belief not mattering much could explain why Bayesian statistics didn't catch on as well as frequentist statistics initially: most of the time, your exact degree of belief doesn't matter and you just need to decide whether or not to do something.

Comment author: gwern 16 April 2012 08:36:11PM 5 points [-]

You're making a massive assumption: that self-experimentation is not biased worse than regular clinical trials by things like selection effects. This is what I mean by methodological concerns making each self-experiment far far less than n=1. I mean, look at OP - from the sound of it, the friend did not report their results anywhere (perhaps because they were null?). Bingo, publication effect. People don't want to discuss null effects, they want to discuss positive results. I've seen this first-hand with dual n-back, among others, where I had trouble eliciting the null results even though they existed.

Given this sort of bias and zero effort on self-experimenters' part to counter it, yes, you absolutely could do far worse than random by sampling 1000 self-experimenters compared to 1000 clinical trial participants! This is especially true for highly variable stuff like sleep, where you can spot any trend you like in all the noise - compare the dramatic confident anecdotes collected by Seth Roberts about vitamin D at night based on purely subjective retrospective recall of <10 nights to my actual relatively moderate findings based on 40 nights of Zeo data.

(I actually have a little demonstration that someone is engaging in considerable confirmation bias, but I'm not done yet. I should be able to post the result in early May.)

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 08:48:47PM 0 points [-]

I don't necessarily disagree with you on any of this. Looks to me like we are talking past each other a little bit.

Comment author: satt 16 April 2012 11:04:44PM *  1 point [-]

Something about your rough model disagrees with me (in addition to the stuff in gwern's comment). Tentatively I'd put my finger on strategies like your hypothetical strategy A being rarer than they look. I think it's uncommon for a prospective lifestyle change to simultaneously

  • have a much better chance than 50% of being worth implementing...
  • ...yet not obviously be a good idea a priori
  • be something you're not already doing
  • be easy for you and/or friends to test/implement
  • be non-obvious enough that published research on it doesn't already exist

(Edited to add "be" to bullet point 2.)

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 11:24:35PM 1 point [-]

Well obviously you have to decide on a case-by-case basis whether Real Science is necessary, but the butter mind thing is looking pretty good:

http://quantifiedself.com/2011/01/results-of-the-buttermind-experiment/

Would you wait for a real study before trying this?

http://lesswrong.com/lw/ba6/alternate_card_types_for_anki/

Comment author: wedrifid 17 April 2012 12:59:55AM *  1 point [-]

Well obviously you have to decide on a case-by-case basis whether Real Science is necessary, but the butter mind thing is looking pretty good:

http://quantifiedself.com/2011/01/results-of-the-buttermind-experiment/

W. T. F! ?

A half stick of butter every day makes you smarter - and in contrast to an equivalent amount of other saturated fats? That's really rather surprising. I would like to see more research on that. Because it is kind of awesome.

Comment author: satt 17 April 2012 11:40:27PM 0 points [-]

Well obviously you have to decide on a case-by-case basis whether Real Science is necessary,

To be sure. I don't think my line of argument should shut the door on self-experimentation. I'd just focus on low-risk, low-effort interventions as candidates. (Otherwise I'm likely to end up with more high-risk/high-effort false positives than I'd like.)

but the butter mind thing is looking pretty good

So it is! When I saw the original Seth Roberts blog post my reaction was to write it off as a probable fluke. The fact that it seems to replicate in a randomized trial with n = 45 makes me much more interested, especially as the relative speed-up from the butter remained at about 5% (suggesting Seth's original result wasn't just a high/low outlier). I'd have chosen a different experimental design, and I'll have to take a look at the raw data to convince myself of the analysis, but it seems promising.

As for the Anki thing, I probably wouldn't wait! It's the sort of low-effort, low-risk intervention that's best for self-experimentation.

Comment author: wedrifid 16 April 2012 03:38:46PM 1 point [-]

(Agreeing and elaborating.)

Methodologically, each self-experiment is typically much more poorly run than the kinds of trials we try to discuss here (RCTs), so each self-experiment represents less than n=1 of data. The RCTs usually have at least a few dozen and ideally hundreds or thousands of subjects, either singly or pooled for meta-analysis. So a single such meta-analysis represents thousands of subjects times the fractional quality of a self-experiment, leading to the conclusion that one self-experiment is worth somewhere less than one-hundredths to one-thousandths of any comparable RCT.

The benefits of self experimentation in areas where there has already been actual bulk research to the level where meta analysis can be done is in the realm of personalizing - finding the effects on yourself in particular. Even then the degree to which self experiment can cause you to update the predicted benefits to yourself will depend on the degree to which variability between people is found (unfortunately not mentioned too much in most studies) and the degree to which self reports (or whatever metrics you use) tend to be reliable indicators of actual influence.

This means that if I am self-experimenting with modafinil I will update significantly on how useful the substance is to myself while I wouldn't even bother self experimenting with respect to how much background noise polution influences my general wellbeing over an extended period. In the latter case p(background sound is detrimental | my self experiment indicates background sound is beneficial) > 0.7.

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 05:10:23PM *  0 points [-]

I'd be interested to see an analysis of how many failures to replicate we should expect if replicators duplicate methodology perfectly, and whether real-world failures to replicate seem to occur in line with that assumption. Wild guess: there are way more failures to replicate then we should expect. If this guess is accurate, that suggests that experimenters tend to introduce undocumented distorting factors into their experiments, and compiled anecdotal evidence is actually more valuable than experimental evidence if you can find a way to sample it randomly.

To provide some intuition for this guess, I remember reading about some guy who was doing experiments on mice and found that random stuff like the lighting in his laboratory were actually the primary explanatory factors for his experimental results. (Maybe someone else can provide a link? I can't seem to find the guy on Google.) From this he concluded that almost all experiments that had been done on mice previously were useless. But you can imagine a mouse experiment where instead of using 100 mice in a single laboratory, 100 mice in 100 different laboratories are used. This could deal with the random stuff problem pretty well.

Of course, there's also the problem of interpreting study results accurately... So I don't think the number of participants is the bottleneck to making inferences in most cases.

And a meta-analysis obviously won't suffer from the random stuff problem as much.

Comment author: gwern 16 April 2012 05:41:20PM 2 points [-]

You're thinking of the mouse study covered by Lehrer in his decline effect New Yorker article, which was Crabbe et al 1999 "Genetics of mouse behavior: interactions with laboratory environment".

Comment author: John_Maxwell_IV 16 April 2012 05:46:40PM 0 points [-]

Thanks!

Comment author: David_Gerard 16 April 2012 04:33:51PM 0 points [-]

The human mind doesn't do 64-bit floating weights. It doesn't even do shorts.

BTW, has anyone ascertained what resolution it does do? (Is this even a coherent question?)

Comment author: gwern 16 April 2012 04:40:32PM *  5 points [-]

Well, it's a question which could be turned into a coherent question in a couple ways, so before getting an answer, you need to decide what question you're asking and what an answer ought to look like. For example:

  • You could ask whether people can distinguish between biased dice down to single percent level or smaller by rolling them a ton of times.
  • You could ask whether calibrated experts can be calibrated down to sub-percent levels without resorting to explicit models and calculation, or whether the inherent mental noise overwhelms differentials before then.
  • You could try to tie it to pulse-coding for utility/rewards (lukeprog covered in one of his neuroscience posts) which would imply something like nothing finer than 1/1000th or something. And so on.

I don't know the answers to any of these - my own impression is that people have fairly granular probabilities. I don't bother with single-percent differences in my own predictions on PredictionBook.com unless I'm in the 0-10/90-100% decile (where 0% is quite different from 1%).

Comment author: TheOtherDave 16 April 2012 05:25:59PM 1 point [-]

Hrm.

Rolling dice a ton of times starts running into problems with short-term memory buffer size and conflation with explicit strategies for managing that limit; it might be more useful to provide a histogram of the results of a hundred die rolls and ask whether it's a biased die or not.

Though, thinking about this... surely this isn't an absolute granularity? I mean, even supposing that it's constant at all. I would expect the minimum size of a detectable probability shift to be proportional to the magnitude of the original probability.

Comment author: David_Gerard 16 April 2012 05:04:35PM *  0 points [-]

This is a question I've thought of posting in discussion before, but I couldn't work out a coherent phrasing. Just how well can the untrained human mind resolve probabilities? Just how well can the trained human mind (e.g. say, a professional bookmaker) resolve probabilities? (Note I have no idea how individual bookmakers do things these days, for all I know they routinely use computers rather than estimating odds themselves. I know the chain ones do.)