private_messaging comments on General purpose intelligence: arguing the Orthogonality thesis - Less Wrong

20 Post author: Stuart_Armstrong 15 May 2012 10:23AM

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Comment author: Stuart_Armstrong 16 May 2012 12:24:36PM *  6 points [-]

My own intuition seems to assign a probability to it that is greater than "very unlikely"

Why? You're making an extraordinary claim. Something - undefined - called philosophical ability is needed (for some reason) to self improve and, for some extraordinary and unexplained reason, this ability causes an agent to have a goal G. Where goal G is similarly undefined.

Let me paraphrase: Consider the possibility that "mathematical ability" is needed to self-improve beyond some threshold of intelligence, and this same "mathematical ability" also reliably causes one to decide that some particular goal G is the right goal to have, and therefore beyond some threshold of intelligence all agents have goal G.

Why is this different? What in your intuition is doing the work "philosophical ability" -> same goals? If we call it something else than "philosophical ability", would you have the same intuition? What raises the status of that implication to the level that it's worthy of consideration?

I'm asking seriously - this is the bit in the argument I consistently fail to understand, the bit that never makes sense to me, but who's outline I can feel in most counterarguments.

Comment author: private_messaging 16 May 2012 02:40:15PM *  -1 points [-]

Engineering ability suffices:

http://lesswrong.com/lw/cej/general_purpose_intelligence_arguing_the/6lst

Do philosophers have an incredibly strong ugh field around anything that can be deemed 'implementation detail'? Clearly, 'superintelligence' the string of letters can have what ever 'goals' the strings of letters, no objection here. The superintelligence in form of distributed system with millisecond or worse lag between components, and nanosecond or better clock speed, on the other hand...