Wei_Dai comments on Open Problems Related to Solomonoff Induction - Less Wrong
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Let S="ST -> false". Then S is false in second-order logic (assuming ST is consistent), but (ST->"All sets: Set entails S") is true, because ST's model has to be bigger than any set (I think it's usually taken to be the proper class of all sets), so every set entails "Not ST".
On input S="ST -> false", your device prints out "true", while my device prints out "false". I still want to be able to hypothesize my device. :)
There are totally models of ZFC containing sets that are models of ZFC. See "Grothendieck universe". Is there a reason why it'd be different in second-order logic? I don't think a second-order set theory would pin down a unique model, why would it? Unless you had some axiom stating that there were no more ordinals past a certain point in which case you might be able to get a unique model. Unless I'm getting this all completely wrong, since I'm overrunning my expertise here.
So in retrospect I have to modify this for us to somehow suppose that the device is operating in a particular model of a second-order theory. And then my device prints out "true" (if it's in one of the smallest models) or the device prints out "false" (if it's in a larger model), unless the device is against the background of an ST with an upper bound imposing a unique model, in which case the device does print out "true" for ST -> false and from the outside, we think that this device is about a small collection of sets so this result is not surprising.
Then the question is whether it makes sense to imagine that the device is about the "largest relevant" model of a set theory - i.e., for any other similar devices, you think no other device will ever refer to a larger model than the current one, nor will any set theory successfully force a model larger than the current one - I think that's the point at which things get semantically interesting again.
Second-order set theory is beyond my expertise too, but I'm going by this paper, which on page 8 says:
So I was taking the "obvious alternative" of proper class of all sets to be the standard model for second order set theory. I don't quite understand the paper's own proposed model, but I don't think it's a set either.
I'm not sure I believe in proper classes and in particular, I'm not sure there's a proper class of all sets that could be the model of a second-order theory such that you could not describe any set larger than the model, and as for pinning down that model using axioms I'm pretty sure you shouldn't be able to do that. There are analogues of the Lowenheim-Skolem theorem for sufficiently large infinities in second-order logic, I seem to recall reading.