Incorrect comments on Thoughts on moral intuitions - Less Wrong

39 Post author: Kaj_Sotala 30 June 2012 06:01AM

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Comment author: Incorrect 28 June 2012 06:47:36PM 9 points [-]

Why do modern-day liberals (for example) generally consider it okay to say "I think everyone should be happy" without offering an explanation, but not okay to say "I think I should be free to keep slaves", regardless of the explanation offered?

"I think everyone should be happy" is an expression of a terminal value. Slavery is not a typically positive terminal value, so if you terminally value slavery you would have to say something like "I like the idea of slavery itself"; if you just say "I like slavery" people will think you have some justification in terms of other terminal values (e.g. slavery -> economics -> happiness).

So, to say you like slavery implies you have some justification for it as an instrumental value. Such justifications are generally considered to be incorrect for typical terminal values and so, the "liberals" could legitimately consider you to be factually incorrect.

Comment author: fubarobfusco 28 June 2012 11:23:03PM 11 points [-]

So, to say you like slavery implies you have some justification for it as an instrumental value.

Well, let's ask some folks who actually did like slavery, and fought for it.

From the Texas Declaration of Secession, adopted February 2, 1861:

[T]he servitude of the African race, as existing in these States, is mutually beneficial to both bond and free, and is abundantly authorized and justified by the experience of mankind, and the revealed will of the Almighty Creator, as recognized by all Christian nations [...]

So at least some people who strongly believed that slavery was moral, claimed to hold this belief on the basis of (what they believed to be) both consequential and divine-command morality.

Comment author: taw 30 June 2012 11:36:08AM 4 points [-]

It's not at all obvious if they really believed it. People say stuff they don't believe all the time.

Comment author: AlexanderRM 07 April 2015 08:20:15PM 0 points [-]

As I side note, I'd like to say I'd imagine nearly all political beliefs throughout history have had people citing every imaginable form of ethics as justifications, and furthermore without even distinguishing between them. From what I understand the vast majority of people don't even realize there's a distinction (I myself didn't know about non-consequentalist ideas until about 6 months ago, actually).

BTW, I would say that an argument about "the freedom to own slaves" is essentially an argument that slavery being allowed is a terminal value, although I'd doubt anyone would argue that owning of slaves is itself a terminal value.

Comment author: AlexMennen 29 June 2012 07:01:38AM 1 point [-]

That seems like a valid distinction, but what makes you think that it is actually the distinction that motivates the difference in reactions?