No; Timeless Decision Theory does not violate causality. It is not a physical theory, which postulates new timetravelling particles or whatever; almost all of its advocates believe in full determinism, in fact. (Counterfactual mugging is an equivalent problem.)
Newcomb's Problem has never included time travel. Every standard issue was created for the standard, non-time travel version. In particular, if one allows for backward causation (ie for one's decision to causally affect what's in the box) then the problem becomes trivial.
No; Timeless Decision Theory does not violate causality.
I didn't say (or mean) that it violated causality. I meant it assigned a probability p>0 to violation of causality being possible. I may be wrong on this, since I only read enough about TDT to infer that it isn't interesting or relevant to me.
Newcomb's Problem has never included time travel.
Actual Newcomb includes an omniscient being, and omniscience is impossible without time travel / violation of causality.
If you say that Omega makes its prediction purely based on the past, Newcomb becomes trivial as well.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":