If Omega makes its prediction based on the past instead of the future, CDT two-boxes and gets $1,000. However, that is a result not of the decision CDT is making, but of the decisions it has made in the past. If Omega plays this game with e.g. TDT, and you substitute TDT with CDT without Omega noticing, CDT two-boxes and takes $1,001,000. Vice versa, if you substitute CDT with TDT, it gets nothing.
If Omega makes its prediction based on the future, CDT assigns a probability of 0 to being in that situation, which is correct, since this is purely theoretical.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":