Newcomb assumes that Omega is omniscient, which more importantly means that the decision you make right now determines whether Omega has put money in the box or not. Obviously this is backwards causality, and therefore not possible in real life, which is why Nozick doesn't spend too much ink on this.
But if you rule out the possibility of backwards causality, Omega can only make his prediction of your decision based on all your actions up to the point where it has to decide whether to put money in the box or not. In that case, if you take two people who have so far always acted (decided) identical, but one will one-box while the other one will two-box, Omega cannot make different predictions for them. And no matter what prediction Omega makes, you don't want to be the one who one-boxes.
Newcomb assumes that Omega is omniscient ...
No, it doesn't. Newcomb's problem assumes that Omega has enough accuracy to make the expected value of one boxing greater than the expected value of two boxing. That is all that is required in order to give the problem the air of paradox.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":