Suppose that Omega is wrong with probability p<1 (this is a perfectly realistic and sensible case). What does (your interpretation of) CDT do in this case, and with what probability?
Here is my EDT calculation:
calculate p(2box|1box prediction)1001000+p(2box|2box prediction)1000=1001000(1-p)+1000p
calculate p(1box|1box prediction)1001000+p(1box|2box prediction)1000=1001000p+1000(1-p)
pick largest of the two (which is 1-box if p < 50%, 2-box if p > 50%).
Thus one should 1-box even if Omega is slightly better than chance.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":