(Fair enough. My only real problem with causal decision theory being called causal decision theory is that at best it's a strange use of the word "causal", breaking with thousands of years of reasonable philosophical tradition. That's my impression anyway—but there's like a billion papers on Newcomb's problem, and maybe one of them gives a perfectly valid explanation of the terminology.)
I'm not familiar with the philosophical tradition that would be incompatible with the way CDT uses 'causality'. It quite possibly exists and my lack of respect for philosophical tradition leaves me ignorant of such.
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":