I'm not familiar with the philosophical tradition that would be incompatible with the way CDT uses 'causality'. It quite possibly exists and my lack of respect for philosophical tradition leaves me ignorant of such.
From my perspective, it's a shame that you have little regard for philosophical tradition. But as someone who is intimately familiar with the philosophical literature on causation, it seems to me that the sense of "causal" in causal decision theory, while imprecise, is perfectly compatible with most traditional approaches. I don't see any reason to think the "causal" in "causal decision theory" is incompatible with regularity theories, probabilistic theories, counterfactual theories, conserved quantity theories, agency/manip...
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":