But as someone who is intimately familiar with the philosophical literature on causation, it seems to me that the sense of "causal" in causal decision theory, while imprecise, is perfectly compatible with most traditional approaches.
That was my impression (without sufficient confidence that I wished to outright contradict on facts.)
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":