Let us assume a repeated game where an agent is presented with a decision between A and B, and Omega observes that the agent chooses A in 80% and B in 20% of the cases.
If Omega now predicts the agent to choose A in the next instance of the game, then the probability of the prediction being correct is 80% - from Omega's perspective as long as the roll hasn't been made, and from the agent's perspective as long as no decision has been made. However, once the decision has been made, the probability of the prediction being correct from the perspective of the agent is either 100% (A) or 0% (B).
If, instead, Omega is a ten-sided die with 8 A-sides and 2 B-sides, then the probability of the prediction being correct is 68% - from Omega's perspective, and from the agent's perspective as long as no decision has been made. However, once the decision has been made, the probability of the prediction being correct from the perspective of the agent is either 80% (A) or 20% (B).
If the agent knows that Omega makes the prediction before the agent makes the decision, then the agent cannot make different decisions without affecting the probability of the prediction being correct, unless Omega's prediction is a coin toss (p=0.5).
The only case where the probability of Omega being correct is unchangeable with p≠0.5 is the case where the agent cannot make different decisions, which I call "no free will".
You are using the wrong sense of "can" in "cannot make different decisions". The every day subjective experience of "free will" isn't caused by your decisions being indeterminate in an objective sense, that's the incoherent concept of libertarian free will. Instead it seems to be based on our decisions being dependent on some sort of internal preference calculation, and the correct sense of "can make different decisions" to use is something like "if the preference calculation had a different outcome that would r...
I have read lots of LW posts on this topic, and everyone seems to take this for granted without giving a proper explanation. So if anyone could explain this to me, I would appreciate that.
This is a simple question that is in need of a simple answer. Please don't link to pages and pages of theorycrafting. Thank you.
Edit: Since posting this, I have come to the conclusion that CDT doesn't actually play Newcomb. Here's a disagreement with that statement:
And here's my response:
Edit 2: Clarification regarding backwards causality, which seems to confuse people:
Edit 3: Further clarification on the possible problems that could be considered Newcomb:
Edit 4: Excerpt from Nozick's "Newcomb's Problem and Two Principles of Choice":