AndyCossyleon comments on Generalizing From One Example - Less Wrong

259 Post author: Yvain 28 April 2009 10:00PM

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Comment author: AndyCossyleon 25 August 2010 05:19:01PM 1 point [-]

If you know the derivative at 0 is 1, then you know the value of pi... just sayin'.

Comment author: RobinZ 26 August 2010 10:30:16PM 0 points [-]

That's not strictly true, seeing as...

$sin\;x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)!}\,x^{2n+1}$

...but I agree that general-shape + derivative-at-zero is not really enough to form estimate of pi.