shminux comments on Risk aversion does not explain people's betting behaviours - Less Wrong

8 Post author: Stuart_Armstrong 20 August 2012 12:38PM

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Comment author: shminux 21 August 2012 12:13:15AM 0 points [-]

Is there a difference, given that there are rather few win-averse people?

Comment author: Stuart_Armstrong 21 August 2012 09:53:13AM *  2 points [-]

You can distinguish the two by offering people choices between a sure $50 and a 50-50 bet paying $0 or $100, and see if their behaviour differs from bets with losses.

Comment author: CronoDAS 22 August 2012 05:27:59AM 1 point [-]

Given a choice between losing $50 or a 50% chance of losing $100, a risk averse person loses the $50 and the loss-averse person takes the 50% chance of losing $100.

Given a choice between gaining $50 or a 50% chance of gaining $100, a risk averse person chooses to gain the $50 and the loss-averse person doesn't care which option he gets.