If √2 is rational, then √2 can be written as z/y for some integers z and y, where z and y are coprime. Then, 2=z²/y².
Consider the hypothetical integer z. It is equal to √2*y. Since y and z are coprime, y cannot contain a factor of √2. Thus, z does not contain a factor of 2; the highest integer power of 2 that is a factor of z is 2^0.
On the other hand, z² does have a factor of 2; it is equal to 2*y² (since y has no factor of √2, y² therefore has no factor of 2).
Therefore, to claim that p² contains exactly twice as many powers of 2 as p is exactly equivalent to claiming that √2 is irrational.
Isn't the point of math that all mathematical truths are logically equivalent? (In beore Gödel.)
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