DaFranker comments on New study on choice blindness in moral positions - Less Wrong

73 Post author: nerfhammer 20 September 2012 06:14PM

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Comment author: Hawisher 24 September 2012 02:40:25PM *  0 points [-]

The quality (in American politics, at least) that either 1: a politician's stance on any given topic is highly mutable, or 2: a politician's stance could perfectly reasonably disagree with that of some of his supporters, given that the politician one supports is at best a best-effort compromise rather than (in most cases) a perfect representation of one's beliefs, is it not so widely-known as to eliminate or alleviate that effect?

Comment author: DaFranker 24 September 2012 02:57:06PM 1 point [-]

I don't see how either or both options you've presented change the point in any way; if politicians claim to agree on X until you agree to vote for them, then turn out to revert to their personal preference once you've already voted for them, then while you may know they're mutable or a best-effort-compromise, you've still agreed with a politician and voted for them on the basis of X, which they now no longer hold.

That they are known to have mutable stances or be prone to hidden agendas only makes this tactic more visible, but also more popular, and by selection effects makes the more dangerous instances of this even more subtle and, well, dangerous.

Comment author: Hawisher 24 September 2012 03:30:19PM 0 points [-]

I would argue that the chief difference between picking a politician to support and choosing answers based on one's personal views of morality is that the former is self-evidently mutable. If a survey-taker was informed beforehand that the survey-giver might or might not change his responses, it is highly doubtful the study in question would have these results.