GuySrinivasan comments on Bead Jar Guesses - Less Wrong

17 Post author: Alicorn 04 May 2009 06:59PM

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Comment author: GuySrinivasan 05 May 2009 05:37:32PM 2 points [-]

The point is that your probability for the "first" integers will not be infinitesimal. If you think that drops off too quickly, instead of 2 use 1+e or something. p(n) = e/(e+2) * (1+e)^(-|n|). And replace n with s(n) if you don't like that ordering of integers. But regardless, there's some N for which there is an n with |n|<N and m with |m|>N such that p(n)/p(m) >> 1.