thomblake comments on [Poll] Less Wrong and Mainstream Philosophy: How Different are We? - Less Wrong

38 Post author: Jayson_Virissimo 26 September 2012 12:25PM

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Comment author: thomblake 26 September 2012 05:36:25PM 3 points [-]

Other: Aristotelianism.

Abstract objects exist when instantiated. The "form of 2" does not exist in a world of forms somewhere, but 2 billiard balls is an instance of both '2' and 'billiard ball'.

Comment author: thomblake 05 October 2012 02:48:35PM 0 points [-]

I'm not sure if Aristotle actually believed an object could be an instance of two forms. That's pretty advanced polymorphism.

Comment author: [deleted] 08 October 2012 08:55:35PM *  1 point [-]

In the loose sense of 'form' (cf. Physics I.7), I think objects could: a rabbit has the form of a rabbit, and if it's white it has that form too. That's also consistant with the relationship between primary and secondary substances and non-substances from Categories.

On the other hand, in Metaphysics, 'form' is pretty much restricted to the identity of a substance. Still I think Aristotle would be happy enough with polymorphism so long as you made a distinction between substance-forms and non-substance-forms.

Comment author: thomblake 08 October 2012 09:04:01PM 0 points [-]

Sounds about right to me.

Comment author: RobbBB 15 December 2012 04:15:47AM -1 points [-]

I agree this is an 'Other' doctrine, and 'nominalism' is a bad name for the doctrine of concretism (i.e., everything is spatiotemporal). But isn't Aristotelianism a form of 'nominalism' as defined here? Doesn't your Aristotelianism deny, or refuse to affirm, any "object that does not correspond to any pattern of matter and energy in space-time"? Properties are not ordinarily thought of as objects, and even so if you think that all properties are instantiated, then they do seem to be spatiotemporal, though perhaps in an informational rather than 'matter/energy' sense. Hm.