army1987 comments on EY "Politics is the Mind Killer" sighting at Washington Examiner and Reason.com - Less Wrong

19 Post author: buybuydandavis 27 September 2012 07:48PM

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Comment author: [deleted] 29 September 2012 11:10:22AM *  2 points [-]

Are you sure that's your true rejection? I think writers use “we” to denote groups that don't literally include all of the readers all the time, but from what I've seen on LW readers seem to be particularly bothered by that when that group is “males”.

Comment author: NancyLebovitz 29 September 2012 02:03:50PM 3 points [-]

I agree that sometimes writers use "we" in ways that don't include the reader.

For example, someone might say "we" of their nation, and thus include those readers which are fellow citizens, but not those readers who aren't. What sort of examples do you have in mind?

Comment author: [deleted] 30 September 2012 12:13:23AM 0 points [-]

Yeah, “we” meaning ‘Americans’ is the first example I would have thought of. But I suspect there are lots of cases where “we” (interpreting the context literally) refers to a group excluding a non-trivial fraction of the readership which I wouldn't even consciously notice unless I was looking for them.

Comment author: TheOtherDave 29 September 2012 05:45:57PM 0 points [-]

I am sometimes irritated when speakers use "we" to refer to heterosexuals, which happens fairly often. I just don't usually mention the fact.