Wei_Dai comments on Ontological Crisis in Humans - Less Wrong

41 Post author: Wei_Dai 18 December 2012 05:32PM

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Comment author: Wei_Dai 19 December 2012 06:02:46AM *  1 point [-]

Looking at the first link you provided, I think that looking at where people moralities concentrate as you present moral arguments to them is totally the wrong way to look at this problem.

You seem to be taking a position that's different from Eliezer's, since AFAIK he has consistently defended this approach that you call "wrong" (for example in the thread following my first linked comment). If you have some idea of how to "derive the computation that we approximate when we talk about morality by examining the dynamic of how people reacts to moral arguments" that doesn't involve just "looking at where people moralities concentrate as you present moral arguments to them" then I'd be interested to know what it is.

ETA: Assuming "when we do moral reasoning we are approximating some computation", what reasons do we have for thinking that the "some computation" will allow us to fully reduce "pain" to a set of truth conditions? What are some properties of this computation that you can cite as being known, that leads you to think this?

Comment author: Karl 19 December 2012 05:05:32PM 1 point [-]

You seem to be taking a position that's different from Eliezer's, since AFAIK he has consistently defended this approach that you call "wrong" (for example in the thread following my first linked comment).

Well, Eliezer_2009 do seem to underestimate the difficulty of the extrapolation problem.

If you have some idea of how to "derive the computation that we approximate when we talk about morality by examining the dynamic of how people reacts to moral arguments" that doesn't involve just "looking at where people moralities concentrate as you present moral arguments to them" then I'd be interested to know what it is.

Have I solved that problem? No. But humans do seem to be able to infer from the way pebblesorters reason that they are referring to primality and also it seem that by looking at mathematicians reasoning about Goldbach's Conjecture we should be able to infer what they refer to when they speak about Goldbach's Conjecture and we don't do that by looking at what position they end up concentrating at when we present them with all possible arguments. So the problem ought to be solvable.

Assuming "when we do moral reasoning we are approximating some computation", what reasons do we have for thinking that the "some computation" will allow us to fully reduce "pain" to a set of truth conditions? What are some properties of this computation that you can cite as being known, that leads you to think this?

Are you trying to imply that it could be the case that the computation that we approximate is only defined over a fixed ontology which doesn't correspond to the correct ontology and simply return a domain error when one try to apply it to the real world? Well that doesn't seem to be the case because we are able to do moral reasoning at a more fine-grained level than the naive ontology and a lot of the concept that seems relevant to moral reasoning, like qualia for example, seems like they ought to have canonical reductions. I detail the way in which I see us doing that kind of elucidation in this comment.

Comment author: Wei_Dai 19 December 2012 09:26:54PM 2 points [-]

But humans do seem to be able to infer from the way pebblesorters reason that they are referring to primality and also it seem that by looking at mathematicians reasoning about Goldbach's Conjecture we should be able to infer what they refer to when they speak about Goldbach's Conjecture and we don't do that by looking at what position they end up concentrating at when we present them with all possible arguments. So the problem ought to be solvable.

In each of those cases the pebblesorter reasoning / human mathematical reasoning is approximating some idealized reasoning system that is "well-behaved" in certain ways, for example not being sensitive to the order in which it encounters arguments. It's also the case that there is only one such system "nearby" so that we don't have to choose from multiple reasoning systems which one we are really approximating. (Although even in math there are some areas, such as set theory, with substantial unresolved debate as to what it is that we're really talking about.) It's unclear to me that either of these holds for human moral reasoning.

Well that doesn't seem to be the case because we are able to do moral reasoning at a more fine-grained level than the naive ontology

Can you give a detailed example of this?

Comment author: Karl 20 December 2012 02:29:42AM 0 points [-]

Given that we are able to come to agreement about certain moral matters and the existence of moral progress, I do think that the evidence favor the existence of a well-behaved idealized reasoning system that we are approximating when we do moral reasoning.

Can you give a detailed example of this?

This for a start.

Comment author: Wei_Dai 20 December 2012 10:33:08AM 1 point [-]

Given that we are able to come to agreement about certain moral matters and the existence of moral progress, I do think that the evidence favor the existence of a well-behaved idealized reasoning system that we are approximating when we do moral reasoning.

What "certain moral matters" do you have in mind? As for existence of moral progress, see Konkvistador's draft post Against moral progress.

This for a start.

I've always found that post problematic, and finally wrote down why. Any other examples?