How? If any of the probabilities that the posterior probability factors into are zero, the product is also zero. Or do you just mean that since data are unlimited precision in a continuous space, no answer can ever have a positive probability because it's infinitely unlikely?
Question in title.
This is obviously subjective, but I figure there ought to be some "go-to" paper. Maybe I've even seen it once, but can't find it now and I don't know if there's anything better.
Links to multiple papers with different focus would be welcome. For my current purpose I have a preference for one that aims low and isn't too long.