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ESRogs comments on A fungibility theorem - Less Wrong
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Sorry, I'm having trouble making sense of your question, and don't know how to formulate an answer that is likely to make sense to you. Is there anyone who understands both of our perspectives, and can help bridge the gap between us? (ETA: My point is essentially the same as kilobug's. Does that version make any more sense to you? ETA2: Never mind, I guess not based on your discussions with him on other threads.)
I think Vaniver might have thought, given the parenthetical about world-histories, that the original set was meant to include all possible world-histories from a given starting point.