jacobt comments on A fungibility theorem - Less Wrong

21 Post author: Nisan 12 January 2013 09:27AM

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Comment author: Nisan 15 January 2013 07:20:28AM 0 points [-]

This example doesn't satisfy the hypotheses of the theorem because you wouldn't want to optimize for v1 if your water was held fixed. Presumably, if you have 3 units of water and no food, you'd prefer 3 units of food to a 50% chance of 7 units of food, even though the latter leads to a higher expectation of v1.

Comment author: jacobt 15 January 2013 07:22:11AM 0 points [-]

You would if you could survive for v1*v2 days.

Comment author: Nisan 16 January 2013 01:38:59AM 1 point [-]

Ah, okay. In that case, if you're faced with a number of choices that offer varying expectations of v1 but all offer a certainty of say 3 units of water, then you'll want to optimize for v1. But if the choices only have the same expectation of v2, then you won't be optimizing for v1. So the theorem doesn't apply because the agent doesn't optimize for each value ceteris paribus in the strong sense described in this footnote.

Comment author: jacobt 16 January 2013 02:24:26AM 0 points [-]

But if the choices only have the same expectation of v2, then you won't be optimizing for v1.

Ok, this correct. I hadn't understood the preconditions well enough. It seems that now the important question is whether things people intuitively think of as different values (my happiness, total happiness, average happiness) satisfy this condition.

Comment author: Nisan 18 January 2013 12:08:16AM 0 points [-]

Admittedly, I'm pretty sure they don't.