- Sister Y's The Right to Marry
- A Really, Really, Really Long Post About Gay Marriage That Does Not, In The End, Support One Side Or The Other also recommended by CharlieSheen
Contracts never have merely two parties. They are never "private" in the sense implied above. A contract requires a third party to enforce the contract against either party at the other's appeal. The existence of the enforcing party is a suppressed premise in almost all contracts, and the consent of that third party is rarely explicitly discussed.
Asking for unbounded "freedom of contract" means asking for the existence of a third party who consents to enforce any contract, and has the power to enforce any contract; in other words, a third party that is amoral and omnipotent; one with no objections to any contract terms, and sufficient power to enforce against any party.
The state, in a democratic republic, cannot be such a third party, because it is not amoral — it has moral (or moral-like) objections to some contract terms. For instance, today's republics do not countenance chattel slavery; even if a person signs a contract to be another's slave, the state will not consent to enforce that contract.
I suggest that, given what we know about humans, the creation of an actual amoral and omnipotent third party would constitute UFAI ....
I suggest that, given what we know about humans, the creation of an actual amoral and omnipotent third party would constitute UFAI ....
Now suppose the existence of an amoral, demiomnipotent third party that can determine if a person understands the implications of an agreement and is free from coercion, will formalize any contract iff all parties understand the implications of said contract and are free from coercion, and enforces all formalized contracts only at the request of any party to the contract. Is that UFAI, FAI, or neither?
I've left 'coercion' undefined for now; if your answer hinges on a precise point within the reasonable definition space, try to find that line.