I'm pretty suspicious that it's actually a postdiction.
I think the actual sequence of events is more like this: crime rates fell drastically all over the US starting in the very early nineties. It's not often in social science that a phenomenom cries out for a causal explanation with a single overriding cause, but this was one such.
The time-lag of the correlation provided enough evidence to bring the lead hypothesis out of the "epsilon probability" regime. That's straightfoward Bayesian reasoning -- verifying a consequence (i.e., prediction) of a hypothesis increases the plausibility of the hypothe...
A friend has been asking my views on the likelihood that there's anything to a correlation between changing levels of lead in paint (and automotive exhaust) and the levels of crime. He quoted from a Reason Blog:
I responded with the following:
He's apparently continued to pursue the question, and just forwarded these remarks from Steven Pinker that I thought were very illuminating, and probably deserve a place in this community's toolkit for skeptics. Pinker's main point is that the association between Lead and crime is a long tenuous chain of suppositions, and several of the intermediate points should be far easier to measure. Finding correlations at this distance is not very informative.
http://stevenpinker.com/files/pinker/files/pinker_comments_on_lead_removal_and_declining_crime.pdf
Does the phrase "long-chain correlation" stick in your head and make it easier to dismiss this kind of argument?