Kaj_Sotala comments on Questions for Moral Realists - Less Wrong

4 Post author: peter_hurford 13 February 2013 05:44AM

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Comment author: Kaj_Sotala 13 February 2013 07:34:44AM *  3 points [-]

What would it mean for there to be several?

That there are many possible moral intuitions or axioms that one could base one's morality on, with no objective criteria for saying which set of intuitions or axioms is the best one? Your basic axioms say that (to simplify a lot) personhood grants rights and morality is about respecting those rights, while a utilitarian could say that suffering is bad and pleasure is good and morality is about how to best minimize suffering and maximize pleasure. Since all morality ultimately reduces to some kinds of axioms that just have to be taken as granted, I am in turn confused about what it would even mean to say that there are is only one correct set of them. (There obviously is some set of axioms that is the only correct one for me, but moral realism seems to imply some set that would be the only correct one for everybody.)

Comment author: Alicorn 13 February 2013 05:35:15PM 3 points [-]

That there are many possible moral intuitions or axioms that one could base one's morality on, with no objective criteria for saying which set of intuitions or axioms is the best one?

Well, yes, I suppose this is literally what that would mean, but I don't see much reason to call any particular thing chosen out of a grab bag "morality" instead of "prudence" or "that thing that Joe does" or "a popular action-tree-pruning algorithm".

Comment author: peter_hurford 15 February 2013 09:10:59PM 0 points [-]

Your theory of morality is certainly complex and well-thought out, but I think is based on an assertion "persons have rights, which it is wrong to violate" that isn't established in any sort of traditionally realist way. Indeed, I think you agree with me that since absolutism theory is false, only those who prefer to recognize rights (or, alternatively, are caught in some regulatory scheme that enforces those rights) have a reason to recognize rights.

Alternatively, as Kaj mentioned, there are other systems of morality, like utilitarianism, that also capture a lot of what is meant by morality and there aren't any grounds to dismiss them as inferior. In an essay I wrote, "Too Many Moralities", I make the place I choose to carve reality around the word "morality" as to whether the “end” holds as its goal acting not with regard to only the self, but rather with regard to the direct or indirect benefit of others. If does, it counts as “morality”, and if it doesn’t, it does not. I don't personally yet see any reason why a particular theory deserves the special treatment of being singled out as the "one, true theory of morality".

I'd appreciate your thoughts on the matter because it could help me understand (and perhaps even sympathize with) the unitary perspective a lot more.

Comment author: Alicorn 15 February 2013 09:30:59PM 1 point [-]

Hmm. I'm not sure I understand your perspective. I'm happy to call all sorts of incorrect moralities "things based on moral intuition", even if I think the extrapolation is wrong, does that help?

Comment author: peter_hurford 16 February 2013 07:25:10PM 0 points [-]

Why do you think their extrapolation is wrong? And what does "wrong" mean in that context?

Comment author: Alicorn 17 February 2013 06:24:40AM 1 point [-]

I'm not sure I know what you mean by the first question. Regarding the second, it means that they have not arrived at the (one true unitary) morality, at least as far as I know. If someone looks an optical illusion like, say, the Muller-Lyer, they base their conclusions about the lengths of the lines they're looking at on their vision, but reach incorrect conclusions. I don't think deriving moral theory from moral intuition is that straightforward or that it's fooled in any particularly analogous way, but that's about what I mean by someone extrapolating incorrectly from moral intuitions.

Comment author: Kaj_Sotala 21 February 2013 03:43:30PM 1 point [-]

I'm not sure I know what you mean by the first question.

I think that he meant something like:

  • You seem to be saying that while different people can have different moralities, many (most?) of the moralities that people can have are wrong.
  • You also seem to be implying that you consider your morality to be more correct than that of many others.
  • Since you believe that there are moralities which are wrong, and that you have a morality which is, if not completely correct then at least more correct than the moralities of many others, that means that you need to have some sort of a rule for deciding what kind of a morality is right and what kind of morality is wrong.
  • So what is the rule that makes you consider your morality more correct than e.g. consequentialism? What are some of the specific mistakes that e.g. consequentialism makes, and how do you know that they are mistakes?
Comment author: peter_hurford 22 March 2013 05:22:57PM 0 points [-]

Sorry for so long between this response and the previous one, but I'm still interested. With the Muller-Lyer Illusion, you can demonstrate it's an illusion by using a ruler. Following your analogy, how would you demonstrate that a incorrect moral extrapolation was similarly in error? Is there a moral "ruler"?

Comment author: Alicorn 22 March 2013 06:14:12PM 0 points [-]

Not one that you can buy at an office supply store, at any rate, but you can triangulate a little using other people and of course checking for consistency is important.

Comment author: peter_hurford 26 March 2013 06:25:21PM 0 points [-]

So what is moral is what is the most popular among all internally consistent possibilities?

Comment author: Alicorn 27 March 2013 07:01:48AM 0 points [-]

No, morality is not contingent on popularity.

Comment author: ygert 13 February 2013 01:16:21PM 1 point [-]

(There obviously is some set of axioms that is the only correct one for me, but moral realism seems to imply some set that would be the only correct one for everybody.)

Note: What I think Alicorn is saying (And I think it makes a of of sense), is that those "axioms" can be derived from the notion of "personhood" or "humanity". That is, given that humans are the way there are, from that we can derive some rules about how to behave. These rules are not truly universal, as aliens would not have them, or be in any way obliged to come up with them. (Of course, they would have there own separate system, but calling that system a form of morality would be distorting the meaning of the word.)

Comment author: Alicorn 13 February 2013 05:33:46PM *  1 point [-]

No. Personhood ≠ humanity. If we find persony aliens I will apply the same moral system to them. Your interpretation seems to cross the cosmetic features of what I'm saying with some of the deeper principles of what Eliezer tends to say.

Comment author: ygert 17 February 2013 12:06:20PM 0 points [-]

Ah. OK, sorry for misinterpreting you. This is just what I got from what you wrote, but of course, the illusion of transparency comes into play.