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Arandur comments on ...What's a bias, again? - Less Wrong

35 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 27 November 2006 01:50AM

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Comment author: Arandur 13 August 2011 01:36:44AM 4 points [-]

Oh, how curious. I've been reading on here a while, and I think I had previously misunderstood the adopted meaning of the word "bias"... using the term as it's socially used, that is to say, a prior reason for holding a certain belief over another due to convenience. A judge might be biased because one side is paying him; a jury member might be biased because their sister is the one on trial. Are these "mistakes"? Or do they fall under a certain type of cognitive bias that is similar among all humans? *ponder*

Comment author: MarkusRamikin 02 October 2014 06:21:43AM *  5 points [-]

I would call a judge who is favoring a side because they're paying him "biased", and not "mistaken" or any such thing. But it's not a cognitive bias. The word "bias" has legitimate meanings other than what EY is saying, so it would have been clearer if the article used the term "cognitive bias" at least at the outset.