Paul_Gowder comments on "I don't know." - Less Wrong

33 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 21 December 2006 06:27PM

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Comment author: Paul_Gowder 22 December 2006 03:47:31AM 0 points [-]

Why exactly is using/uttering an ignorance prior better than "I don't know?" The two convey exactly the same amount of information ("speaker has no data"). It seems to me that the only difference is that the former conveys additional worthless information in the form of an estimate of a probability that bears no necessary relationship to reality.