I'm not convinced that the 'endowment effect' would be an inaccurate heuristic. (Is this being claimed? I'm not sure.) If I play a trading card game and get some shiny new card that looks pretty good to me and I guess that it's worth $5 and someone comes a long and see it and offers to buy it from me for my value of $5, I suddenly think that the card might actually be better than I realized and worth more than $5; certainly at least one other person thought it was worth at least $5. Kahneman's prospect model appears to assume perfect knowledge of the probabilities of the outcomes. When I don't truly know the value of objects, isn't it rational to err on the side of not taking up other people's offers?
I'm not convinced that the 'endowment effect' would be an inaccurate heuristic. (Is this being claimed? I'm not sure.)
I don't think it's being claimed that it's a universally bad heuristic (or valuation bias or whatever), but rather that it sometimes leads to bad decisions. For example, I've read speculation* to the effect that it can make renegotiation of contracts trickier (people unwilling to go down), make it harder for e.g. mobile spectrum licenses to end up with the right companies, and (elsewhere) that it may account for people hoarding stuff ev...
Under fairly weak assumptions, the most a standard rational economic agent is willing to pay for an item they don't own (WTP) and the least they're willing to accept in exchange for that item if they already own it (WTA) should be identical. In experiments with humans, psychologists and economists have repeatedly found WTP-WTA gaps suggesting that humans aren't rational in at least this specific way. This has been interpreted as the endowment effect* and evidence for prospect theory. According to prospect theory, people are loss averse. Roughly this means that that, given their current ownership set, people value not losing stuff more highly than gaining stuff. Thus once someone gains ownership of something they suddenly value it much more highly. This "endowment effect"* on one's valuation of an item has been put forth as an explanation for the observed WTP - WTA gaps.
*Wikipedia confusingly defines the endowment effect as the gap itself, i.e. as the phenomena to be explained instead of the explanation. I suspect this is a difference in terminology among economists and psychologists, where psychologists use the wiki definition and economists use the definition I give here. However, calling the WTP-WTA gap an "endowment effect" is a bit misleading because a priori the gap may not have anything to endowments at all.
A paper (pdf) by Charlie Plott and Kathryn Zeiler investigates WTP-WTA gaps and it turns out that they may just be due to subjects not quite understanding the experimental protocols, particularly in the value elicitation process. Here's an important quote from their conclusion, but do read the paper for details: