If I am given a thing, like a mug, I now have one more mug than I had before. My need for mugs has therefore decreased. If I am to sell the mug, I must examine how much I will need the mug after it is gone and place a price on that loss of utility. If I am buying a mug I must set a price on how much I need it after I have it and place a price on that increase of utility. If the experiment is not worded carefully then the thought process could go along the lines of...
I have 2 mugs, and often take a tea break with my mate Steve. To sell one of those mugs would make me lose out on this activity... $10. I don't hugely need another mug unless it breaks, but it is handy to have a spare... $2.
In real life people will attribute more value to their stuff than other stuff as in general they would not have got the stuff if they did not value it higher than the cost of getting it. It is not a failiure of rationality to want something more than what you paid for it, and while it is a failiure of rationality to over value something just because you own it, it is not a failiure of rationality to ask a higher price first in case the person you are selling to is willing to pay more.
It would be difficult to adjust for these factors in designing an experiment.
This all depends on the valuation elicitation process, which is pretty clever and, assuming that the subjects are acting rationality, does in fact elicit true values - at least as implemented in the paper I linked. As the paper goes into, others unknowningly tweak this process a bit and change the incentive structure, then (surprise) they get WTP-WTA gaps.
Under fairly weak assumptions, the most a standard rational economic agent is willing to pay for an item they don't own (WTP) and the least they're willing to accept in exchange for that item if they already own it (WTA) should be identical. In experiments with humans, psychologists and economists have repeatedly found WTP-WTA gaps suggesting that humans aren't rational in at least this specific way. This has been interpreted as the endowment effect* and evidence for prospect theory. According to prospect theory, people are loss averse. Roughly this means that that, given their current ownership set, people value not losing stuff more highly than gaining stuff. Thus once someone gains ownership of something they suddenly value it much more highly. This "endowment effect"* on one's valuation of an item has been put forth as an explanation for the observed WTP - WTA gaps.
*Wikipedia confusingly defines the endowment effect as the gap itself, i.e. as the phenomena to be explained instead of the explanation. I suspect this is a difference in terminology among economists and psychologists, where psychologists use the wiki definition and economists use the definition I give here. However, calling the WTP-WTA gap an "endowment effect" is a bit misleading because a priori the gap may not have anything to endowments at all.
A paper (pdf) by Charlie Plott and Kathryn Zeiler investigates WTP-WTA gaps and it turns out that they may just be due to subjects not quite understanding the experimental protocols, particularly in the value elicitation process. Here's an important quote from their conclusion, but do read the paper for details: