Buying an item and selling an item are not symetrical situations. Unless you buy and sell the item repeatedly.
For example, I buy a new device, and I spend 10 hours studying how to use it. Later I sell the device. Do I get those 10 hours of my time back? No. So the total outcome of buying the device and selling the device was minus 10 hours worth of my time.
With simpler items, the transaction cost may be smaller, but it always exists. When I buy an item, I must change my life to include the effective use of the item. When I sell an item, I must change my life again to avoid needing the item. Even if you sell me a candy, I must think about whether I want that candy. If you sell me a mug, I have to check whether it does not have defects. If you sell me a lottery ticket, I will calculate the chances and compare with other products in the same category (even if I am irrational enough to buy a lottery ticket, I will still do my flawed calculations, and they will cost me real time).
Also, in my experience, I buy stuff all the time, but I rarely sell anything. If someone asked to buy my toaster, I would decline. I know it works. If I replaced it with the proceeds of the sale, I might get a lemon.
Under fairly weak assumptions, the most a standard rational economic agent is willing to pay for an item they don't own (WTP) and the least they're willing to accept in exchange for that item if they already own it (WTA) should be identical. In experiments with humans, psychologists and economists have repeatedly found WTP-WTA gaps suggesting that humans aren't rational in at least this specific way. This has been interpreted as the endowment effect* and evidence for prospect theory. According to prospect theory, people are loss averse. Roughly this means that that, given their current ownership set, people value not losing stuff more highly than gaining stuff. Thus once someone gains ownership of something they suddenly value it much more highly. This "endowment effect"* on one's valuation of an item has been put forth as an explanation for the observed WTP - WTA gaps.
*Wikipedia confusingly defines the endowment effect as the gap itself, i.e. as the phenomena to be explained instead of the explanation. I suspect this is a difference in terminology among economists and psychologists, where psychologists use the wiki definition and economists use the definition I give here. However, calling the WTP-WTA gap an "endowment effect" is a bit misleading because a priori the gap may not have anything to endowments at all.
A paper (pdf) by Charlie Plott and Kathryn Zeiler investigates WTP-WTA gaps and it turns out that they may just be due to subjects not quite understanding the experimental protocols, particularly in the value elicitation process. Here's an important quote from their conclusion, but do read the paper for details: