If you have to act in one of a few specific ways in order to fulfill my preference, and I can fulfill your preference by refraining from acting in a few specific ways, a bias in favor of your preference being fulfilled over mine can in some cases be explained without further reference to our personal attributes, or to attributes of the specific acts themselves.

Is this one of those cases? Perhaps; perhaps not. Bald assertion one way or the other isn't terribly convincing.