It seems pretty obvious that it would. Those two jobs compete for the same workforce. What's less obvious is exactly how much child prostitution it leads to. My instinct is that the first order effects are more important.
Of course, finding reliable evidence that it's true and finding reliable evidence of the extent to which it's true are pretty much the same thing, so this doesn't matter all that much.
I've been looking for reliable evidence of a claim I've heard a few times. The claim is that the closing of sweatshops (by anti-globalization activists) has resulted in many of the child workers becoming prostitutes. The idea is frequently proffered as an example of do-gooder foolishness ignoring basic economics and screwing people over.
However, despite searching for a while, I can't find anything to indicate that this actually happened.
Some guy at the Library of Economics and Liberty mentions it here:
But in the article, Paul Krugman mentions the Oxfam study without citation:
I looked at some Oxfam stuff, but couldn't find the study.
A similar claim is made in The Race to the Top: The Real Story of Globalization by Tomas Larsson (go here and use the search tool for the word 'prostitution'), but doesn't mention the Oxfam study:
I looked for a paper or something by Maskus but came up empty.
I was taught this fact at a Poli Sci class in college, but I'm starting to think it's more likely to be an information cascade. Can anyone do a better job than me?
Thanks in advance.