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simon2 comments on "Inductive Bias" - Less Wrong

21 Post author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 08 April 2007 07:52PM

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Comment author: simon2 10 April 2007 04:04:06AM 0 points [-]

Why do you refer to the difference between a prior and the uniform prior as a bias, rather than the difference from the optimal prior? This doesn't agree with how you previously defined a bias.