Sorry, I'll ask a really dumb question here because it's the middle of the night and my brain doesn't work. What's the "official" Bayesian response to this joke (see part 2)? To summarize, when a Bayesian talks about a coin with unknown bias, that involves a prior over possible biases, i.e. a subjective probability distribution over objective probability distributions. But Bayesians are supposed to think that objective probabilities don't exist ("meaningless speculations about the propensities of different coins"). So how does that make sense?
The coin was made in one of several ways. (Perhaps these ways are parametrized by the ratio of weights between the two sides of the coin.) You have a subjective probability distribution over this set W of possible ways in which the coin was made, according to which p(w) is the probability that the coin was made in way w. This distribution should come from a maximum entropy prior incorporating all your knowledge about the origin of the coin.
Furthermore, for each way w in W, you have a conditional probability p(H | w), which is your subjective probabilit...
If it's worth saying, but not worth its own post (even in Discussion), then it goes here.