hairyfigment comments on [LINK] - Aaron Sell (Psychology Today) on the Politicisation of Science - Less Wrong
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It is, however, a claim that Sell denies.
He's right that the question he mentions seems really bad, ignoring cognitive dissonance. (I'm assuming here that he describes the order correctly.) But he shows no awareness that according to Conley et al:
So to answer his question: Yes I think you could get positive response rates about equal to a women asking men for sex, if women knew you gave them orgasms ~100% of the time! Just how different do you think their brains are? I was given to understand that orgasms, and also failures to obtain one, are neurologically similar.
Well, that is itself a neurological difference.
Neurological similarity: Most male orgasms result from stimulation of the penis. Most female orgasms result from stimulation of the homologous organ, the clitoris.
Anatomical difference: Standard sexual intercourse stimulates the penis very effectively, but stimulates the clitoris only moderately.
In a non-iterated interaction, the male partner has less incentive to perform activities likely to result in female orgasm. No brain difference is required to explain this effect.
I was going to mention that result but was too lazy to find it and then my comment got excessively long. Thanks!
<speculation ass="wild">Might it be that women with anorgasmia are less likely to stay into relationships for some reason?</speculation>